No you did not.
Most of the the founders were opposed to slavery. Even George Washington and Thomas Jefferson who both owned slaves were opposed to it. In the state of Virginia it was illegal to free your slaves. Jefferson tried to get legislation passed in that state many time to change that law so he could free his slaves. Washington was able to when he died but Virginia closed that loophole before Jefferson died.
So when the Constitution was written there had to be compromises made with the pro slave states, specifically Georgia and Virginia who were the 2 of the 13 states who protested abolishing slavery.
1 compromise was to end the importing of slaves 20 years after the Constitution was ratified.
The others was to make the vote of a servant 3/5th of a vote.
What you and the left fails to understand because you don't know history is that only the male landowner could vote and his vote counted for all adults living on his land. So if it was a man and wife his vote counted as 2 votes. If it was a man, wife and 5 children, 2 of whom were adults then that landowner's vote counted as 4.
However, if it was a man, woman and 5 "servants" (because the Constitution does not refer to them as slaves) the it would 5 votes, not 7. Because servants counted at 3/5th so all 5 servants counted as 3.
A male landowner with slaves was much less likely to voted against slavery so the founders weakened his voting power.
That meant the as a nation the pro slavery vote would on average always be less that the anti slavery vote.
And before you get all contrary and call me delusional for the millionth time go read what former slave Frederick Douglass said about it. Because he originally thought just like the ignorant Democrats of today. But when he studied the Constitution and the founders he understood what the 3/the clause was all about.
For once do your homework instead of just calling me delusional.
