If he is accusing Democrats of hypocrisy, then he is making a connection.
The question is... if the statement has anything to do with hypocrisy, what exactly is hypocritical here?
Also, in the context of guns and epidemic, the only context that I'm aware is Biden's speech here regarding gun violence in general, which would include the Chicago statistics.
https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases/2021/04/07/fact-sheet-biden-harris-administration-announces-initial-actions-to-address-the-gun-violence-public-health-epidemic/
He does not specifically call out "cops killing blacks" as an epidemic.
In fact, Biden doesn't even speak of it at all.
I'm just speculating here, but I think the OP is attempting to make a connection between Biden and the criticism of cops killing unarmed citizens.
Despite, of course, no evidence of the sort exists that he actually is. He appears to be focusing on gun violence in general and how it makes law enforcement jobs harder.
The only thing dubious about this, of course, is how he hints major changes to the second amendment. But that's an entirely different argument by that point. Which, of course one can change the second amendment. No question. Should they, however, is where I would say no.
