I'm in the middle of writing a manuscript for a book on religion. Here's a few mentions from the Christianity part: * Why do Matthew, Mark, and Luke say Jesus threw the moneychangers out of the temple at the end of his ministry, but John says it was at the beginning? Which got it wrong?
* Why do the gospels disagree on the number of angels at the empty tomb? Which one is telling the truth?
* Why do the gospels disagree on who was there to see the tomb? It ranges one, two, four, or “many.” Which is true?
* Why do the gospels disagree on what happened at the resurrection?
* Why do the angel or angels’ (the gospels have different numbers of angels) messages all differ?
* Why is the writing on over the cross different?
* Why is Jesus' final words different in each gospel?
* Why does Jesus tell Mary that he cannot be touched but then allows Thomas and others to touch him? Was it because she was female?
* Why does the book of Acts say that after his conversion, Paul immediately went to see the elders in Jerusalem but Paul’s own account in Galations claims he waited three years before making a 15 day visit to Jerusalem to meet Peter and James?
* Why are the details of Jesus’ trial so inconsistent? Does he speak or not? He was "silent as a lamb" in Mark but in John, he is like a questioning defense attorney in a high profile trial.
* Why are there different versions of the 10 Commandments? Exodus 20 and Exodus 34 have two TOTALLY different sets of commandments but *only* in Ex 34 are they called “The 10 Commandments.”
* Why does Ecclesiastes 1:4 say that the earth will last forever yet II Peter 3:10 says that it won't? Which do you believe?
* Why does Ecclesiastes 1:18 say that wisdom brings grief but Ecclesiastes 8:1 says that wisdom causes one's face to shine? Which statement do you believe?
* II Kings 2:11 says that Elijah ascended to heaven in a whirlwind but John 3:13 says that nobody before Jesus ever ascended into heaven. Which statement do you believe? How can both be true?
* Isaiah clearly stated that he saw God (Isaiah 6:1); but John said (twice) that nobody has ever seen God at any time (I John 4:12; John 1:18). Who's correct, John or Isaiah? For that matter, Jesus says that whoever has seen him has seen the Father. So …
* Some people say that Isaiah saw God "in a vision" only. What is the difference between seeing God "in person" vs. seeing God in a vision that's provided by God himself?
And I can do this for as long as you wish.......