I never said the KJV wasn't an literal or essentially accurate translation but that it lacks the input of later discovered OT Hebrew & OT Greek manuscripts such as the Dead Sea Scrolls manuscripts of the OT [400 BC-200 BC] for the former as well as for the latter the Septuagint [as early as the 3rd Century BC-2nd Century BC which was used as the primary translation by the inspired New Testament writers].
While the KJV has heavy reliance on the Rabbinical Masoretic Text of the OT( which shows signs of scribal tampering of Christian OT proof texts concerning the Messiah eg Deuteronomy 32:8-9:
Deuteronomy 32:8-9
"When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the CHILDREN OF ISRAEL. For the Lord’s portion is his people; Jacob is the lot of his inheritance.
King James Version Bible translation
“When the Most High gave the nations their inheritance, when he divided up humankind, he set the boundaries of the peoples, according to the number of the HEAVENLY ASSEMBLY[ SONS OF GOD].”
NET Bible translation
Footnote
Hebrew “the sons of Israel.” The idea, perhaps, is that Israel was central to Yahweh’s purposes and all other nations were arranged and distributed according to how they related to Israel. See S. R. Driver, Deuteronomy (ICC), 355-56. For the MT יִשְׂרָאֵל בְּנֵי (bene yisraʾel, “sons of Israel”) a Qumran fragment has “sons of God,” while the LXX reads ἀγγέλων θεοῦ (angelōn theou, “angels of God”), presupposing בְּנֵי אֵל (bene ʾel) or בְּנֵי אֵלִים (bene ʾelim).
“Sons of God” is undoubtedly the original reading; the MT and LXX have each interpreted it differently. MT assumes that the expression “sons of God” refers to Israel (cf. Hos. 1:10), while LXX has assumed that the phrase refers to the angelic heavenly assembly (Pss 29:1; 89:6; cf. as well Ps 82). The phrase is also attested in Ugaritic, where it refers to the high god El’s divine assembly.
According to the latter view, which is reflected in the translation, the Lord delegated jurisdiction over the nations to his angelic host (cf. Dan. 10:13-21), while reserving for himself Israel, over whom he rules directly. For a defense of the view taken here, see M. S. Heiser, “Deuteronomy 32:8 and the Sons of God,” BSac 158 (2001): 52-74."
