OK bud, you keep repeating this phrase, 'without her consent'. Yet only 1.5% of abortions occur because of rape or incest. https://www.usatoday.com/story/news/nation/2019/05/24/rape-and-incest-account-few-abortions-so-why-all-attention/1211175001/
So, that means a whopping 98.5% of abortions do NOT occur because of rape or incest. Of course, there may be some variance due to lack of reporting, etc, but nothing within the realm of reasonable deviation could possibly bring that figure down to a level where we'd say abortions are usually undertaken because of rape or incest.
Having established this, I want you to answer one question before we go any further; are you limiting your stance on abortion to cases of rape or incest? Unless you clearly state otherwise I'm going to assume you do, because you keep repeating this 'consent' business that I'll address in a moment. If you are indeed limiting yourself to this, then you're arguing for a circumstance that is, AT BEST, an exception to otherwise-normal conditions.
If you're not though, and you see the need for consent to be given for every pregnancy no matter what or else abortion has to be made available, then consider this; we've already established that only 1.5% (give or take) of abortions are obtained because of rape or incest. That means 98.5% (give or take) of abortions are executed on developing human beings who were brought into existence after CONSENSUAL sexual relations. When a couple has consensual sex, they HAVE to be open to the possibility that they could conceive a child. It is a beautiful act and a gift from God, but engaging in it can only be done with the assumption that they are open to having a child, or in other words, that they give consent to have a child.
To argue otherwise is just saying, "Hey, we wanted to have sex for our own benefit, but this kid that's gonna be the result? Yeah, we don't want to deal with him. Sorry kiddo, it's the vacuum for you."
I await your response.