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Blank | IF THE SECOND AMENDMENT RIGHT TO KEEP AND BEAR ARMS ONLY REFERS TO A "WELL REGULATED MILITIA" WHY DOES THE 2ND AMENDMENT STATE THE RIGHT OF "THE PEOPLE"? IF THE SECOND AMENDMENT ONLY APPLIES TO A WELL REGULATED (GOVERNMENT APPROVED) MILITIA, WHY INCLUDE IT IN THE BILL OF RIGHTS AT ALL? | image tagged in blank,memes | made w/ Imgflip meme maker
1,538 views 21 upvotes Made by boredmeme 8 years ago in fun
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5 ups, 8y
black baby shocked | Holy crap! You GET it! | image tagged in black baby shocked | made w/ Imgflip meme maker
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3 ups, 8y
The phrase "well-regulated" was in common use long before 1789, and remained so for a century thereafter. It referred to the property of something being in proper working order. Something that was well-regulated was calibrated correctly, functioning as expected. Establishing government oversight of the people's arms was not only NOT the intent in using the phrase in the 2nd amendment, it was precisely to render the government powerless to do so that the founders wrote it.
2 ups, 8y
I DON'T REMEMBER THE CONSTITUTION SPECIFYING "ONLY" | made w/ Imgflip meme maker
The phrase "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State..." is giving a reason. It's not giving a necessary restriction.
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IF THE SECOND AMENDMENT RIGHT TO KEEP AND BEAR ARMS ONLY REFERS TO A "WELL REGULATED MILITIA" WHY DOES THE 2ND AMENDMENT STATE THE RIGHT OF "THE PEOPLE"? IF THE SECOND AMENDMENT ONLY APPLIES TO A WELL REGULATED (GOVERNMENT APPROVED) MILITIA, WHY INCLUDE IT IN THE BILL OF RIGHTS AT ALL?