Wander_Lust (7199)
Joined 2018-04-06
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The worm turns
Well, that's just dumb
You're not just misunderstanding my last point, you're intentionally misunderstanding every point, so it's not worth continuing with you.
Women were voting before 1920, it just became a guaranteed right in the constitution in 1920. Some states allowed women to vote more than 50 years before that. On top of that, don't act like all men were allowed to vote (they've never had the right, in the US) for centuries before that. Wyoming gave women the right to vote in 1869, a mere decade (give or take a few years) after all men were finally allowed to vote. Yes, there have been times and places women have been treated like property, but rarely in european-descended societies, and not to the degree of middle-eastern societies. In Euro-societies, women (wealthy ones at least) have for the most part, maybe not had any, or many, civil rights, but they've lived pampered lives, not having to work, being able to go out, go shopping, spend their husband's earnings (when it wasn't deemed "low class" to do all that oneself rather than let servants do it) and socialize. Women in families of lower wealth didn't have all that privilege, and generally had to work alongside their men. As for a man raping his wife, that's shitty behavior, of course, but with the passing of that law, women no longer had any responsibility to actually provide anything to a marriage. For all the time before that, the only things women were actually expected to provide were sex and children, and keeping the home, in exchange for a roof over their heads and food on their plates, clothes on their backs, protection from danger, protection from being required to perform hard labor, money to spend, and so on. In other words, the men shouldn't have **ped their wives, but by all social conventions, they shouldn't have had to, either.