LET'S MULL OVER A FUTURE SCENARIO:; SO THIS WOMAN LEGALLY CHANGES GENDER FROM FEMALE TO MALE AND FILES DIVORCE PROCEDURES TO TAKE THE HUSBAND FOR HALF OF HIS LIFETIME EARNINGS. THE HUSBAND POINTS OUT THAT HE LEGALLY MARRIED A WOMAN INSTEAD OF ANOTHER MAN. THE JUDGE CONCEDES THE ARGUMENT AND GRANTS A NO-FAULT DIVORCE WITH ZERO ALIMONY DUE. HOW COULD ANY REPUTABLE JUDGE POSSIBLY RULE ANY OTHER WAY SINCE CLEARLY THE HUSBAND DID LEGALLY MARRY A WOMAN?
