pride month special: pedophiles are the sinners, not the queer community

THANK YOU

I’m gonna quote this anytime a homophobe walks up to me

Hmm, I have to show this to Victor

I could not have said it better myself

sending this to my grandmother and uncle rn

DOES LEVITICUS 18:22 SAY MAN OR BOY (PART-2B) THE OLDER TRANSLATIONS.

With that said I think what Leviticus 18:22 is really saying is that men shall not have sex with the male gender, whether young or old, as they would with a woman of marriageable age.

Ed and Kathy has made the claim that all other "Mainline translations" ( https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sjL_1TX71yo ) were changed to that version. But does that include the KJV and older translations as the modern translations were made in the 1800's?

In the Geneva Bible (1599) it says:
22 Thou shalt not lie with the male as one lieth with a woman: for it is abomination.



In this meme you see now is the Septuagint, a Greek Old Testament made I believe, before Christ, and there it only uses the word, "man" and not boy.

LORD] [ le.18.22 ] και [AND] μετα [FOR] αρσενος [A MAN] ου [YOU SHALL NOT] κοιμηθηση [GO TO BED] κοιτην [MARRIAGEBED] γυναικος [WOMAN] βδελυγμα [AN ABOMINATION]
Dickey, Joshua. Interlinear Greek Old Testament Septuagint (Kindle Locations 34546-34551). . Kindle Edition.

730 αρρην probably from (142) arrhen None ar'-hrane Adjective probably from (142) ; male (as stronger for lifting) :--male, man. a male
Dickey, Joshua. Interlinear Greek Old Testament Septuagint (Kindle Locations 236528-236529). . Kindle Edition.

Lastly, if the Christian bible versions did change the word from the original to the new by mistake and perhaps later with malicious intent, then the Jewish bible should have the original word, but it doesn't. it also uses the word, "Man"

22You shall not lie down with a male, as with a woman: this is an abomination.
https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo/aid/9919

The claim seemed to be a bit dubious because what they seemed to be doing is creating a conspiracy theory, that the conservative pastors do not want you to know or have been ignorant of. The thing is that many of these same pastors also studied the original languages of Hebrew and so they should have seen it also.

And why is it that the man who've found it is the only person that did?

The movie has yet to be released so I am hoping that they can provide evidence in the form of original versions of the modern and older versions such as the ASV, KJV, Geneva, Vulgate, etc, that has the word "Boy" to prove without a doubt that the claim is true.

But, if no evidence of that kind is produced, then I must say that the claim is false.

oh ok. I didn’t make this, it’s a screenshot off of pinterest that I thought I would share with you guys. That being said, i feel like the last paragraph in the original post is still pretty relevant

It is relevant as I think Jesus would definitely stand against abuses towards the LGBTQ+ as He did with a *woman caught in adultery (Leviticus 20:10, John 1:17, & *8:1-11).

With that said however, He did affirm the one man and one woman marital order and relationship in Matthew 19:4-5 as He quoted Old Testament scripture.

A lot of people would say that when Jesus appeared, He changed everything which includes the allowance of the LGBTQ+ relationships, but Jesus was the same God who gave Moses the law which included Leviticus 18:22.

In fact, Jesus said "I came not to destroy the law but to fulfill" (Matthew 5:17-18). What has changed however, is that there would be no longer religious executions as grace entered into the picture if you will (John 1:17). This is why the adulterous woman is not and a sorcerer not executed (Acts 13:8-11).

SCRIPTURE CITATION SOURCE:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Leviticus+20%3A10%2C+John+1%3A17%2C+8%3A1-11%2C+Matthew+19%3A4-5%2C+Genesis+2%3A18-24%2C+Matthew+5%3A17-18%2C+Acts+13%3A8-11&version=ESV

*Male in the Jewish text, not man. Sorry about that.

1 CORINTHIANS 6:9-10 IN THE OLDER VERSIONS

The King James Version reads the same way as the newer versions of scripture along with the Geneva Bible of 1599 (it uses the word "Buggerer" which means sodomite); but do older versions rendered the same? Yes.

In the Majority Text (top of meme), is one of the three bodies of text (Alexandrian text being the oldest & the Textus Receptus the newest the KJV relied upon) which this one being the largest also says the same thing along with the Vulgate (bottom of meme), the latter being the first translation that is not in the original language, and has been used by the church until the 1500's.

Given the claim that was made, Ed and Kathy must again prove that the original Bible versions, along with the aforementioned older versions, used a different word

NOTE: BUGGERY
Sodomy today means that a man had s*x with an underage boy, but the word originally meant "crime against nature" according to the 1828 Dictionary. The word itself is directly derived from the city of Sodom where the two Angels were nearly gang r*ped by the same sex gender
http://webstersdictionary1828.com/Dictionary/sodomy

Merriam Webster also agrees:
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/bugger

KJV, ESV, & GNV
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+6%3A9-10&version=KJV;ESV;GNV

MAJORITY TEXT/BYZANTINE TEXT: http://www.majoritytext.com/

VULGATE NEW TESTAMENT: St. Jerome. Interlinear Latin Vulgate (New Testament Bible) (Kindle Location 8343). Etch Publishing. Kindle Edition.

TRULY AND THANK YOU

Yes

WAHEEEEEEEEY

DOES LEVITICUS 18:22 SAY MAN OR BOY (PART-2A) ANSWERS TO THE CLAIM.

My own findings yielded both a credibility for the claim, but also the opposite. Here is what I mean.

What you see here is a word translation Zahar, the Hebrew word for man. "Thou shalt not lie with mankind as with a woman...." It means man, but also a boy.

As you scroll down it explains more of it and when you see the word in usage, you will notice that it is not always used in reference to a boy or man. This is where one has to understand that the word does not always say what it means. Words thus are to be understood by the context for which it is used.

For example, you will notice that whenver the word is used, it is used for children when it says "man child" in Genesis 17:12 in that instance. The translators added the word "child" there to convey what the word should mean to the readers.

However, in Numbers 3:39 it refers to all males, not just boys. Additionally, you will see the KJV uses the word "Male" (Genesis 1:27) and in the same verse, it uses the word female which can either mean woman or girl.

DOES LEVITICUS 18:22 SAY MAN OR BOY (PART-1) INTRODUCTION

This is another quick answer because I'm running out of time.

I've looked into the controversy and it originated with Ed Oxford and Kathy Baldock. Both are in the process of making a movie documentary titled simply, "1946". In it, they've claimed that the RSV (Revised Standard Version) mistranslated the verse in Leviticus 18:22 to mean or say "Homosexual" when the original word means, "Boy".

One person in examining the original text itself saw the error and brought it up to the translation team. They've acknowledged it saying that there is something to his claim but it was too late. The version was released, and all the other translations followed suit which unfortunately had a negative impact on the church-LGBTQ+ relations according to them.

The movie has not yet been released, but trailers can be seen. Here is the site you can go to for more information: https://www.1946themovie.com/

Hi everyone. It will take me some time to research this issue but I might be able to answer by tonight.