The Senate representation had nothing to do with population. House does, and with no compromise and assuming the lack of compromise went the South's way, they would have been overrepresented there.
With a popular vote instead of the electoral college, inclusion of slaves in calculations would only affect the presidential election if they actually voted, which wasn't ever on the table.
Please tell me how I'm wrong.
You think that people who were bought and sold, whose children were also property weren't seen as less? They were livestock, except when it benefited those States to count them.
Public schools aren't how I know the worst parts. For that you have to go back and look at first hand accounts. Even look at some of the lawsuits and laws passed where it was said an owner should be assumed innocent if his slave died during punishment.