Or is it only ok to name diseases after European countries?

Ah, but you see, it DIDN'T originate in Spain. It originated in Kansas. But people were racist enough to blame Spain.

I did know that...however, everyone THOUGHT it came from Spain, and the name is still being used to this day with no one crying about how racist it is against caucasians, so the point is still valid.

It's actually called A/H1N1 these days. Just because you haven't moved on, doesn't mean the rest of the world hasn't.

"The rest of the world" must not include CNN...

Or the NY Times...

Or NBC news...

Hahaha, yeah.
You gotta get with the times man. We rewriting everything including the name of viruses to numbers. You're out of it hahaha.

Looks like you are the only one that's moved on...

It wasn't racism. Unbelievable how you Lefties have ONE tool in your toolbox for everything. It was called the Spanish flu because Spain was the only country reporting about it at the end of WW1. Other countries were suppressing the news because of the war going on at the time, but Spain was neutral and didn't suppress the news.

Good gum! At least get another name to call people.

You've got the OP saying right there that naming it as such mislead people into believing it was the origin of the outbreak. How is that kind of intentional manipulation of opinion through language not racism?

He's simply mistaken on a matter of fact. Being wrong on facts does not make someone racist or even "intentionally manipulative". You've no evidence for either one of those assumptions. The people living at the time thought it originated from Spain because of how the news was reported. There is nothing remotely racist about any of it. They aren't even sure it originated in Kansas.