I've heard this argument a lot in the past. Like, a lot a lot. Not a single time has anyone explained how it was changed or how they know it was changed. They just say it has been. Now, in Protestant translations like the KJV, I wouldn't be shocked at all. Martin Luther and King James saw to it that Protestant bibles were tweaked heavily. But the Catholic bible? For one, there is no record of the change, and for two, these are Catholics like myself we're talking about. We're notorious for traditionalism (and while I'm a 2nd Vatican Council member, which means we've modernized and surrendered most of the "slavery" and "put to death" verses and started looking at them figuratively, we're still highly traditional). It seems highly unlikely that this verse really existed, granted there's a story of Sodom (known as the greatest sexual offender in history) in which random men tried to f**k some angels and were blinded for it.
I'm not calling you a liar- it's easy to say "this helps" and roll with it. I'm calling others liars.
Looking at an essay written on your side, I can see they do have a point behind it, attempting to translate into Hebrew. The issue I see here is they assume it means incest or pedophilia because in Gen 49:4 the word "lyings" is used that way, and they call it safe to assume that's what it always means that. The final result of the translations they ran (after complaining about how bible verses like to add linguistic articles, so i smell hypocrite) resulted in “Sexual intercourse with a close male relative should be just as abominable to you as incestuous relationships with female relatives.”
Caption this Meme
