he doesn't advocate QE, and he believes in a natural rate of interest. The second one has been disproven by Mosler.
(i) The first characteristic which tends towards the above conclusion is the fact that money has, both in the long and in the short period, a zero, or at any rate a very small, elasticity of production, so far as the power of private enterprise is concerned, as distinct from the monetary authority; — elasticity of production[2] meaning, in this context, the response of the quantity of labour applied to producing it to a rise in the quantity of labour which a unit of it will command. Money, that is to say, cannot be readily produced; — labour cannot be turned on at will by entrepreneurs to produce money in increasing quantities as its price rises in terms of the wage-unit. In the case of an inconvertible managed currency this condition is strictly satisfied.
in fact money can be readily produced by someone other than the currency soverign in the form of banks just creating money in a computer (the creation of endogenous $ by a banking system).
Given that keynes is wrong about the natural rate of interest, I think he is also wrong about predicting inflation as a natural consequence of govt spending or else the Economy is in such a suppressed, weakened state from decades of malfeasance that any marginal infusion of cash creates no infusion. The only other possible explanation I can think of is that the quantity of "financial wealth" and hot money is already so huge that any amount given to poor people is negligible and insufficient to create inflation according to keynes model, but according to post keynesianism that hot money itself should be creating massive inflation. Consistent with both of these facts is the explanation that Mosler advances that inflation is just the interbank lending rate and any skimming off the top through fees and other forms of loan interest.
so yeah ur wrong